I'd like to know if there is a connection between delayed onset muscle soreness and pain tolerance.

I have always had a high tolerance for pain and have never experienced a lower tolerance for pain before now. My body is very sore after exercising yesterday and some of my movement is restricted slightly, but this is nothing I haven't experienced after a workout before. What's new is I react more quickly and sensitively to pain stimuli (a sharp poke, a firm pinch) today, one day later.

This has never happened before so I'm wondering if there is a connection.

I'd appreciate any input.



I have not exercised regularly in years (I used to go to the gym 3 times a week for personal training sessions but that was in 2012). The last time I exercised before now was about half a year ago, and I was only able to keep the routine for a couple of weeks.

Last night, I worked out for the first time in a while, following a couple of Fitness Blender's workout videos (roughly 1.5 to 2 hours of beginner cardio, beginner HIIT and Tabata, with a little yoga/pilates at the end before the cool down).

I felt it was a pretty vigorous workout for someone just starting up again so I thought perhaps this is the reason for decreased pain tolerance?

  • While I do not know of any correlation between pain tolerance and doms, generally the more you train with a specific routine th less you feel doms. I would imagine the reason you are sore is because you haven't done that exercise routine in a while. Anyways doms really isn't a pain feeling but rather a sore feeling, are you sure you didn't pull a muscle maybe?if that's the case a sports practitioner might help – Muntasir Alam Oct 4 '16 at 11:42

First of all, there's not a unified model for DOMS.

The majour hypotesis and models are five, but they all fail to unify insurgence of pain depending on time with the actual culprit ( in terms of biology, the molecule or mechanism that should cause them ).

No. DOMS have nothing to do with ones pain tolerance. The amount of pain you feel from DOMS is subjective.

  • 1
    That is a pretty blanket statement. Do you have anything to back that up? – JohnP Sep 4 '16 at 14:38
  • Actually I have. But wasn't making reference a "not to do" thing? However: link.springer.com/article/10.2165/00007256-200333020-00005 Here is the litterature review that proposes the model of DOMS. I have full access to this article, but this is under paywall ( if you don't have a subscription to the journal I can't help you ) – Liv Sep 4 '16 at 15:08

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