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I want to ask that, in pull-ups do you actually lift your ENTIRE bodyweight for the same range of motion as you do in lat pull downs (like someone touching the bar on pull-ups and lat pull downs to their chin) or its slightly lesser because the COM (center of mass) is changing as the shape of your body changes while doing pull-ups from hands completely straight to bend at the top. It came to my mind because I have observed that in lat pull downs most people(including myself) can lift 5-10 kg lesser weight for the same reps as their pull-ups max reps. Obviously it depends on what movement you train more and the neurological adaptations as well. But for someone who does both, I have seen this case in MOST. Is the Range of motion in pull-ups actually lesser?

I want to ask that, in pull-ups do you actually lift your ENTIRE bodyweight for the same range of motion as you do in lat pull downs (like someone touching the bar on pull-ups and lat pull downs to their chin) or its slightly lesser because the COM is changing as the shape of your body changes while doing pull-ups from hands completely straight to bend at the top. It came to my mind because I have observed that in lat pull downs most people(including myself) can lift 5-10 kg lesser weight for the same reps as their pull-ups max reps. Obviously it depends on what movement you train more and the neurological adaptations as well. But for someone who does both, I have seen this case in MOST. Is the Range of motion in pull-ups actually lesser?

I want to ask that, in pull-ups do you actually lift your ENTIRE bodyweight for the same range of motion as you do in lat pull downs (like someone touching the bar on pull-ups and lat pull downs to their chin) or its slightly lesser because the COM (center of mass) is changing as the shape of your body changes while doing pull-ups from hands completely straight to bend at the top. It came to my mind because I have observed that in lat pull downs most people(including myself) can lift 5-10 kg lesser weight for the same reps as their pull-ups max reps. Obviously it depends on what movement you train more and the neurological adaptations as well. But for someone who does both, I have seen this case in MOST. Is the Range of motion in pull-ups actually lesser?

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Why are pull-ups slightly easier than lat pull downs?

I want to ask that, in pull-ups do you actually lift your ENTIRE bodyweight for the same range of motion as you do in lat pull downs (like someone touching the bar on pull-ups and lat pull downs to their chin) or its slightly lesser because the COM is changing as the shape of your body changes while doing pull-ups from hands completely straight to bend at the top. It came to my mind because I have observed that in lat pull downs most people(including myself) can lift 5-10 kg lesser weight for the same reps as their pull-ups max reps. Obviously it depends on what movement you train more and the neurological adaptations as well. But for someone who does both, I have seen this case in MOST. Is the Range of motion in pull-ups actually lesser?